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In 1 Cor 6:11 Paul says that only some of the Corinthians had committed the great sins; but in Romans 1 he implies all Greeks had done all.How possible?

We saw in answer 95 that there are two ways of looking at law, focused and factual. In 1 Cor 6:11 it is factual; in Romans 1it is focused: each command in the law makes a heavy demand, gives no strength, so all fall and sin against each major demand. Hence in Romans 2:1 each one is guilty of the very same sins.